Lecture 3: September 14th,
1998
Comparative/Competitive Advantages
Last updated:Oct. 14th,
1998
Blueprint:
Theoretical Explanations for Trade
I. Comparative Advantage
-
Definition: Absolute Advantage
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Definition: Comparative Advantage
-
Example
-
Determining wage rates and exchange rates
-
Definition: Competitive Advantage
-
Additional Comments
II. Factor Abundance Theory
I. Comparative Advantage
A. Definition: Absolute Advantage
-
A nation has an absolute advantage with respect to a product if that nation
can produce the product more efficiently than a competitor.
-
Here is an example of absolute advantage in the following 2 country, 2
good world.
| |
Labour required
for Textiles
|
Labour required
for Wine
|
|
England
|
2
|
5
|
|
Portugal
|
5
|
4
|
-
In this case England can produce a unit of textiles more efficiently than
Portugal, so it has an absolute advantage in the production of textiles.
Portugal can produce a unit of wine more efficiently than England, so it
has an absolute advantage in wine production.
-
Adam Smith, in his book Wealth of Nations, made the insight that
England should specialize in the production of textiles and export textiles
to Portugal and Portugal will specialize in the production of wine and
export wine to England.
B. Definition: Comparative Advantage
-
A country has a comparative advantage in the production of a good if the
opportunity cost of producing the good is lower in that country than other
countries.
-
Def’n of Opportunity Cost: The opportunity cost of any action is
the value of the next most valuable action forgone.
Ex. of comparative advantage in terms of opportunity costs (taken
from Jim Brander): A dentist who is very good at cleaning patients’ teeth
would still be better off hiring a dental hygienist to do cleaning and
focus his or her time on more sophisticated work. The opportunity cost
of cleaning teeth is just too high from a dentist’s point of view. Cleaning
teeth is not a dentist’s area of comparative advantage, even if the dentist
is very good at it (even better than the hired dental hygienist). The dentist
has a comparative advantage in sophisticated dental work and will earn
more income by specialising in such work.
-
The English economist David Ricardo first advanced the theory of comparative
advantage in the early 19th century.
-
A country can have a comparative advantage even when it does not have
an absolute advantage.
C. Example
| |
Labour required
for Textiles
|
Labour required
for Wine
|
|
England
|
2
|
4
|
|
Portugal
|
5
|
5
|
-
In our example England has an absolute advantage over Portugal in the production
of both textiles and wine.
-
To see which country has the comparative advantage in textiles we consider
how many units of wine it "costs" to produce a unit of textiles. In England
it costs 0.5 units of wine to produce a unit of textiles (since forgoing
production of one unit of wine enables the production of an additional
2 units of textiles). In Portugal it costs one unit of wine to produce
a unit of textiles. England's opportunity cost (of textiles in terms of
wine) is lower, so it enjoys a comparative advantage in the production
of textiles.
-
Now consider how many units of textiles it "costs" to produce a unit of
wine. In England it costs 2 units of textiles to produce a unit of wine
(the opportunity cost of wine in terms of textiles for England is 2). In
Portugal it costs one unit of textiles to produce a unit of wine. Therefore
Portugal's opportunity cost (of wine in terms of textiles) is lower, so
it enjoys a comparative advantage in the production of wine. This advantage
exists despite the fact that England has an absolute advantage over Portugal
in the production of wine.
-
Since England is relatively more efficient at producing textiles and Portugal
is relatively more efficient (less bad) at producing wine, England should
specialize in the production of textiles and Portugal in the production
of wine.
-
To see the gains from trade, assume that the total number of units of available
labour is 100 in each country. Suppose also that without trade, England
could produce and consume 30 units of textiles and 10 units of wine. (30
units of textiles X 2 units of labour/unit of textile PLUS 10 units of
wine X 4 units of labour/unit of wine EQUALS 100 units of labour.) Suppose
also that without trade, Portugal could produce and consume 12 units of
textiles and 8 units of wine. This is just one of many combinations of
possible outputs, but we will assume this one and ignore any taste preferences.
Before Trade consumption and production:
| |
Textiles |
Wine |
| England |
30 |
10 |
| Portugal |
12 |
8 |
|
Sum
|
42 |
18 |
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If we open the two countries up to trade, we know that the price for the
same good will equalise in both countries (otherwise consumers would only
buy from the cheaper country). Prices are determined by the countries’
relative input coefficients.
-
For instance, before trade the price of textiles in terms of wine in England
was 0.5 and in Portugal it was 1. Clearly there is an opportunity here
for trade. England would be willing to trade textiles provided it can get
at least 0.5 units of wine per unit of textile. Portugal would be willing
to buy textiles provided it does not need to pay more than one unit of
wine for a unit of textiles. Any trading price between 0.5 and 1.0 (of
textiles in terms of wine) will be attractive to both countries.
After Trade:
| |
Textiles
|
Wine
|
| |
Production |
Consumption |
Production |
Consumption |
| England |
50 |
36.25 |
|
11 |
| Portugal |
|
13.75 |
20 |
9 |
|
Sum
|
50 |
50 |
20 |
20 |
|
Gain from trade
|
50-42=8 |
|
20-18=2 |
|
-
Suppose the trading price (textiles in terms of wine) is 0.8 and suppose
that both countries completely specialise. If they do so, England will
produce 50 units of textiles and Portugal will produce 20 units of wine.
Portugal could keep 9 units of wine for itself and trade the other 11 units
to England for (11/0.8=) 13.75 units of textiles. So Portugal would be
able to consume 9 units of wine and 13.75 units of textiles. This is an
improvement over the 8 units of wine and 12 units of textiles that Portugal
would have consumed without trade. Again, this is just one of many combinations
of possible export/import scenarios. There will always be a gain from trade,
though, as long as what is retained in the exporting country is more than
was consumed in autarky (no trade).
-
Looking at the total production, we can see that with the same amount of
labour as before, there is more textiles and wine produced? What's going
on? What happened is that both countries only produced the thing that they
were relatively more efficient at. More bang for their buck.
-
After the trade, England would consume (50-13.75=) 36.25 units of textiles
and 11 units of wine. This is an improvement over the 30 units of textiles
and 10 units of wine that England would have consumed without trade.
-
Both countries gained although England gained more because it is wealthier
(it had the absolute advantage, remember).
D. Determining wage rates and exchange rates
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Relative wages are determined by the autarky (before trade) relative productivities.
-
In this example, wages in England would be higher than wages in Portugal
because England is more efficient at producing both products than Portugal.
We have assumed that labour is the only factor of production and there
are no profits, so prices equal costs. And we know that because of the
comparative advantages in this model, Portugal specializes in wine and
England specializes in textiles :
Price of wine in Portugal before trade
< Price of wine in England before trade
or
(labour required for wine production in Portugal) x (Portuguese wage
rate)
< (labour required for wine production in England) x (English wage
rate)
and
Price of textiles in England before trade
< Price of textiles in Portugal before trade
or
(labour required for textile production in Portugal) x (Portuguese wage
rate)
> (labour required for textile production in England) x (English wage
rate)
Substituting in the numbers from our example, we get:
5 x (Portuguese wage rate) < 4 x (English wage rate)
and
5 x (Portuguese wage rate) > 2 x (English wage rate)
So, 5/4 < English wage rate / Portuguese wage rate < 5/2
-
The bounds for the relative wage rates is actually the ratio of the two
countries’ productivities. Productivity in this one factor world is simply
the inverse of the units of labour required for production. So, 5/4=(1/4)/(1/5),
which is England’s productivity at wine over Portugal’s productivity at
wine. Likewise, 5/2=(1/2)/(1/5), which is England’s productivity at textiles
over Portugal’s productivity at textiles.
-
Now, if just one country completely specialized and the other continued
to produce both products, the wage would be determined by the relative
productivities of the good in common. For example, if the scenario was
that England produced both goods and Portugal produced only wine, then
the English to Portuguese wage rate would be exactly (¼)/(1/5)=1.25.
As long as both countries are only producing one good, we can only determine
a range for the relative wage rates.
-
If the wages are fixed, then the exchange rate will change to match what
the relative wage should be. Say the English wage rate is fixed at 1.25
Pound per worker per day and the Portuguese wage rate is 1 Escudo per worker
per day, then what is the likely range for the Pound/Escudo exchange rate?
1.25 < we / e*wp < 2.5
1 < 1/e < 2
0.5 < e < 1
E. Definition: Competitive Advantage
-
Usually the term competitive advantage is used with respect to an individual
firm. It’s harder to define when talking about countries.
-
From the point of view of an individual firm, having a competitive advantage
means being able to produce a product of given quality at a lower cost
than its foreign rivals. Let’s say hypothetically that one company owned
2 firms operating in both England and Portugal. The firm was trying to
decide which plant to make which products in, then…
-
In this example, if the Portuguese wage > 4/5 * English wage then the Portuguese
plant would have no competitive advantage and nothing would be produced
there. Ie: the wage in Portugual would be so high that it wouldn’t be worth
it to produce anything in Portugal. This is the situation where the relative
wages are < 5/4.
-
If the Portuguese wage < 2/5 * English wage then the English plant would
have no competitive advantage and would be shut down because the wages
in Portugal are relatively so low. This is the situation where the relative
wages are > 5/2.
F. Additional Comments
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Important and concerning assumptions that were made:
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Only one factor of production -- labour.
-
No transportation costs.
-
Resources can be redeployed costlessly to different sectors of the economy
(no discussion of training or retraining).
-
Fixed labour supply.
-
Changes in production due to trade opportunities improve the total welfare
of each country. But they do not necessarily make each individual in a
country better off. For example, English wine growers and Portuguese textile
producers might be worse off as a result of the trade opportunities.
-
Can't always determine the exact trading price.
Insight: Should be able to get that the comparative advantage model
is a very simplistic view of the world that has some validity but makes
drastic assumptions to get its results.
II. Factor Abundance Theory
-
Countries are not only different in their productivities, but they also
differ in their endowments of factors of production.
-
What is a factor of production?
1. something that is not manufactured,
2. is used in a variety of industries, and
3. is not internationally mobile.
What are the important factors of production? (ex: land/water, human labour,
"capital")
-
The Heckscher-Ohlin trade theory of factor endowments says that a country
has an comparative advantage in the production of those goods that use
its abundant factors intensely. Comparative advantage arises from differences
in national factor endowments.
-
Intensive use just means it accounts for a high share of the cost of producing
that good.
-
If we have just two factors: land (L) and capital (K), then country 1 is
defined to be relatively abundant in factor K if K1/L1>
K2/L2.
-
In the real world, there are many factors and countries so we must rely
on a different rule. If your share of the world’s endowment of some factor
exceeds your share of the world’s income then that factor is relatively
abundant at home. ie: if K1/(K1+ K2+…)
> Y1/(Y1+Y2+…).
-
So, why does Canada export so much newsprint? Because newsprint makes intensive
use of two factors "forest land" and "capital" that are relatively abundant
in Canada.
-
The big producers of paper and allied products (pulp and paper, newprint,
paperboard) are:
| |
Canada
|
Finland
|
U.S.A.
|
Japan
|
| % of World Paper and Allied Products Prod'n |
10%
|
5%
|
32%
|
9%
|
-
The FTP theory predicts that the countries that are relatively well endowed
in forest resources will be net exporters of the products that use the
factor intensively.
| Relative Abundances |
Canada
|
Finland
|
U.S.A.
|
Japan
|
|
% of 1994 World Forest & Wood Areas
|
12%
|
0.6%
|
7.2%
|
0.6%
|
|
% of 1994 Total World Output
|
1.9%
|
0.3%
|
25%
|
17%
|
-
We can see that Canada and Finland are relatively well endowed in forest
resources and they are, indeed, net exporters of paper and allied products.
| |
Canada |
Finland |
U.S.A. |
Japan |
| Net Exports (1994)
(billion tonnes) |
12,448 |
9,290 |
-4,911 |
-436 |
Source: The Food and Agriculture Organization of
the United Nations.
-
Empirical support for this theory is actually relatively weak. The most
famous empirical study of this theory found that, despite the U.S. being
relatively abundant in capital, U.S. exports are less capital intensive
than U.S. imports. This finding is known as the Leontief paradox.